Which of the following is not a benefit of standardization?
- Consistent management
- Better control of system access
- Uniform logging across systems
- Flexible deployment scenarios
Answer: Flexible deployment scenarios
Cloud Computing | Google & AWS | Multiple Choice | Questions and Answers
Answer: Flexible deployment scenarios
Answer: Change management
Answer: Document the solution.
Answer: HBA
Answer: Hotfix
Answer: Resize the virtual machine.
Answer: Baseline
Answer: Capacity planning
Answer: Shared storage
Answer: Rolling updates
Answer: MTBF
Answer: Service level agreement
Answer: Service design
Answer: Standard operating procedure
Answer: Small changes made to code are tested immediately in the development landscape before being passed to other landscapes.
Answer: DevOps ticketing is not a method for deploying application updates. The methods are manual version updating, end-user updating, and using a package manager.
Answer: A code repository organizes code branches to keep code consistent even when multiple teams are working on the same areas in parallel. Developers can publish code changes to the repository, can synchronize their local copy of the code with the repository, or can revert to previously published versions.
Answer: Flexible deployment scenarios is not a benefit of standardization because standardization establishes consistent deployment scenarios and does not allow for each one to be deployed however the user or administrator wishes.
Answer: A maintenance window is an agreed-upon, predefined time period during which service interruptions are least impactful to the customer. This could fall at any time, and depends on the patterns of business activity for that particular customer.
Answer: Chargebacks can be used to establish metrics on mailbox usage per department so that department budgets can be billed for the expense of hosting department e-mail.
Answer: Capacity management's primary objective is to ensure that the capacity of an IT service is optimally matched with its demand. Capacity should be planned to meet agreed-upon levels, no higher and no lower. Because controlling costs is a component of capacity management, designs that incorporate too much capacity are just as bad as designs that incorporate too little capacity.
Answer: Policies are defined as rule sets by which users and administrators must abide.
A. Replacing rotational media with solid state media
B. Replacing rotational media with higher-speed rotational media
C. Decreasing disk quotas
D. Employing a different configuration for the RAID array
Answer: C. Decreasing disk quotas helps with capacity issues, but not with performance.
A. CPU affinity
B. Memory ballooning
C. Swap file configuration
D. Network attached storage
Answer: B. Memory ballooning allows guest operating systems to share noncritical memory pages with the host.
A. Quotas
B. CPU affinity
C. Resource pools
D. Licensing Optimizing Performance
Answer: C. Resource pools allow the creation of a hierarchy of guest virtual machine groups that can have different administrative privileges assigned to them.
A. Network isolation
B. Physical resource redirection
C. V2V
D. Storage migration
Answer: B. Physical resource redirection enables virtual machines to utilize physical hardware as if they were physical hosts that could connect to the hardware directly.
A. Hosts
B. Virtual machines
C. Both
D. Neither
Answer: C. Both hosts and guests must be licensed in a virtual environment.
A. Penalty
B. Hard quota
C. Soft quota
D. Alerts
Answer: C. Soft quotas enforce limits on resources, but do not restrict access to the requested resources when the quota has been exceeded.
A. V2V
B. CPU affinity
C. V2P
D. P2V
Answer: B. CPU affinity allows all requests from a specific thread or process to be handled by the same processor core.
A. Over Ethernet cables
B. By using USB 3.0
C. Through the system bus
D. By emulating a BIOS that abstracts the hardware
Answer: D. The host computer BIOS is emulated by the hypervisor to provide compute resources for a virtual machine.
A. When a maximum amount of resources needs to be allocated to a specific resource
B. When a minimum amount of capacity needs to be available at all times to a specific resource
C. When capacity needs to be measured and controlled
D. When planning a dinner date
Answer: B. A reservation should be used when there is a minimum amount of resources that needs to have guaranteed capacity.
A. By management systems
B. According to service level agreements that are defined between providers and their customers
C. Through trend analysis and its results
D. With spreadsheets and reports
Answer: B. Quotas are defined according to service level agreements that are negotiated between a provider and its customers.
A. Limits
B. Rules
C. Access restrictions
D. Virtualization
Answer: A. Quotas are limits on the resources that can be utilized for a specific entity on a system. For example, a user could be limited to storing up to 10GB of data on a server or a virtual machine limited to 500GB of bandwidth each month.
A. Cores
B. Power supply
C. Processor
D. Bandwidth
Answer: C. The four compute resources used in virtualization are disk, memory, processor, and network. On a host, these are available as the physical entities of hard disks, memory chips, processors, and network interface cards (NICs).
A. Application upgrade
B. Application retirement
C. Application replacement
D. Application migration
Answer: C. Application replacement
A. RJ-45
B. USB port
C. Console port
D. SATA port
Answer: C. Console port
A. Deployment
B. Specifications
C. Testing
D. Maintenance
Answer: D. Maintenance
A. Deployment
B. Specifications
C. Upgrades
D. Testing
E. Maintenance
Answer: A. Deployment
A. WBEM
B. ITLI
C. MOF
D. OSI
Answer: C. MOF
A. Public
B. Private
C. Symmetric
D. Asymmetric
Answer: C. Symmetric
A. POP3
B. SNMP
C. IMAP
D. SMTP
E. Syslog
Answer: D. SMTP
A. RDMS
B. Orchestration
C. On-demand provisions
D. Scripting
Answer: B. Orchestration
A. Enable syslog forwarding.
B. Forward logs to an on-premises server.
C. Establish a performance baseline.
D. Take virtual machine snapshots.
E. Harden each virtual machine.
Answer: C. Establish a performance baseline.
A. Running processes
B. Halted processes
C. BIOS settings
D. Application monitoring
E. Installed software
Answer: C. BIOS settings
A. WMI
B. Syslog
C. WBEM
D. IPMI
E. SNMP
Answer: A. WMI
A. Metered
B. Private
C. Departmental
D. Charging
E. Hybrid
Answer: B. Private
A. CAB
B. Continual service improvement
C. Service strategy
D. Service operation
Answer: B. The end result of each cycle within ITIL is to identify opportunities for improvement that can be incorporated into the service to make it more efficient, effective, and profitable
A. Baseline
B. Finite
C. Linear
D. Continuum
Answer: D. Life cycle management is a continuum with feedback loops going back into itself to enable better management and continual improvement
A. Only being able to modify one hypervisor host at a time
B. Being able to remotely manage multiple hypervisor hosts from a single console
C. Not having access to a hypervisor host
D. Remotely accessing a hypervisor host has no benefit Life Cycle Management
Answer: B. The ability to remotely manage multiple hypervisor hosts from a single console from your workstation allows for a quick and easy way to make changes to multiple hosts and is an important benefit of remote hypervisor administration.
A. RDP
B. Console port
C. SMTP
D. HTTPS
Answer: A. The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) lets you establish a remote connection directly to a hypervisor host. It allows you to change system settings on the hypervisor host computer itself.
A. WMI
B. SNMP
C. HTTP
D. Syslog
Answer: A. With Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI), it is possible to query workstations remotely and gather a list of all the software installed on those workstations.
A. Telnet
B. Ping
C. HTTPS
D. Console port
Answer: C. HTTPS gives you a way to access a virtualization host remotely in a secure fashion.
A. Console port
B. SSH
C. Hypervisor console
D. SMTP
Answer: B. Secure Shell (SSH) provides a secure way to remotely manage network devices, including hypervisor hosts.
A. WMI
B. SMS
C. SNMP
D. IPMI Remote-Access Tools
Answer: D. The Intelligent Platform Management Interface (IPMI) operates independently of the operating system. It provides out-of-band management and monitoring of a system before the operating system is loaded, which allows BIOS settings to be remotely monitored or configured
A. SMTP
B. SMS
C. SNMP
D. Syslog
Answer: A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) can be configured to send an e-mail alert when a certain monitored event occurs
A. SMTP
B. SMS
C. SNMP
D. Syslog
Answer: B. Short Message Service (SMS) is a text messaging service that allows an alert to be sent to a mobile device.
A. WMI
B. SMTP
C. SMS
D. SNMP
Answer: D. A monitoring solution that uses SNMP has an administrative computer, commonly referred to as a manager, that monitors or manages a group of network devices. Each managed device constantly executes a software component, called an agent, that reports back to the manager
A. WMI
B. SMTP
C. SMS
D. IMAP
Answer: A. Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) allows you to write scripts to automate certain administrative tasks and run those scripts against remote computers
A. SNMP
B. Syslog
C. WMI
D. We services
Answer: B. Syslog provides a mechanism for a network device to send event messages to a logging server or syslog server using UDP port 514 or TCP 514
A. API
B. SNMP
C. Dashboard
D. SMTP
Answer: C. A dashboard is a great way for both the cloud consumer and cloud provider to access key metrics when it comes to monitoring cloud resources. A dashboard can give a summary of the current usage of the cloud resources in an easy-to-view format of charts and graphs
A. WMI
B. SMTP
C. SMS
D. IMAP
Answer: A. Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI) provides an administrator a way to gather hardware information from multiple physical servers or virtual servers and put that information into a centralized database
A. Performance
B. Reduced costs
C. Security
D. Reduced network complexity
Answer: D. Reduced network complexity
A. Routing complexity
B. Available bandwidth
C. Cloud ingress network traffic costs
D. Cloud egress network traffic costs
Answer: B. Available bandwidth
A. LUN masking
B. VLANs
C. Zoning
D. Load balancing
Answer: B. VLANs
A. The DHCP server cannot be reached.
B. The default gateway cannot be reached.
C. The DNS server cannot be reached.
D. The proxy server cannot be reached.
Answer: A. The DHCP server cannot be reached.
A. Forward proxy host
B. Packet filtering firewall
C. Web application firewall
D. NAT
E. Host based firewall
Answer: D. NAT
A. Compression
B. Load balancing
C. Proxying
D. PKI
Answer: B. Load balancing
A. 81
B. 444
C. Any port below 1024
D. Any port above 1024
Answer: D. Any port above 1024
A. Higher storage requirements
B. Longer transmission time
C. Higher compute requirements
D. Shorter transmission time
E. Higher latency
Answer: C. Higher compute requirements
A. DNS
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SMTP
Answer: D. SMTP is used to transfer e-mail messages from one e-mail server to another over the Internet.
A. 25
B. 22
C. 23
D. 443
Answer: C. Telnet uses port 23 by default for its communication.
A. DNS, DHCP
B. DHCP, DNS
C. HTTP, DNS
D. DHCP, SMTP
Answer: B. DHCP is responsible for assigning IP addresses to computers and DNS is responsible for resolving those IP addresses to names.
A. Certificates
B. FTPS
C. SSH
D. SMTP
Answer: C. SFTP uses SSH keys to secure FTP communication.
A. HTTP over port 80
B. SMTP over port 25
C. FTP over port 21
D. HTTPS over port 443
Answer: D. HTTPS is an extension of HTTP that provides secure communication over the Internet and uses port 443 by default.
A. MAN
B. WAN
C. VLAN
D. SAN
Answer: C. A VLAN allows you to configure separate broadcast domains even if the devices are plugged into the same physical switch.
A. 12.152.36.9
B. 10.10.10.10
C. 72.64.53.89
D. 173.194.96.3
Answer: B. 10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255 is a private class A address range.
A. NAT
B. DNS
C. VLAN
D. Subnetting
Answer: A. NAT allows your router to change your private IP address into a public IP address so that you can access resources that are external to your organization; then the router tracks those IP address changes.
A. Caching
B. Network load balancing
C. Compression
D. Network bandwidth
Answer: B. Network load balancing is used to increase performance and provide redundancy for websites and applications.
A. LAN
B. WAN
C. MAN
D. SAN
Answer: C. A metropolitan area network (MAN) can connect multiple LANs and is used to build networks with high data connection speeds for cities or college campuses.
A. Network latency
B. Caching
C. Network bandwidth
D. High CPU and memory usage
Answer: A. Network latency is a time delay that is encountered while data is being sent from one point to another on the network and impacts network bandwidth and performance.
A. Network latency
B. Bandwidth
C. Compression
D. Network load balancing
Answer: B. Bandwidth is the amount of data that can traverse a network interface over a specific amount of time.
A. Intranet
B. Extranet
C. Internet
D. LAN
Answer: C. The Internet is not controlled by a single entity and serves billions of users around the world
A. An intranet does not require a firewall.
B. An extranet requires less administration than an intranet.
C. An intranet is owned and operated by a single organization.
D. An extranet allows controlled access from outside the organization.
Answer: D. An extranet is an extension of an intranet with the primary difference being that an extranet allows controlled access from outside the organization.
A. Internet
B. Extranet
C. Intranet
D. LAN
Answer: C. An intranet is a private network that is configured and controlled by a single organization and is only accessible by users that are internal to that organization.
1. Reduce your it costs by not having to maintain on site servers.
2. Ability to "Pay-as-you-grow", avoiding prohibitive up front costs when you're first starting out.
3. Ability to access applications/software without necessarily having it locally installed.
A. BIA
B. BCP
C. DRP
D. SLA
Answer: D. SLA
A. Infrastructure provisioning time is increased.
B. IT capital expenditures are increased.
C. Infrastructure provisioning time is decreased.
D. Application provisioning is increased
Answer: C. Infrastructure provisioning time is decreased.
A. Add project name metadata to cloud-stored files.
B. Configure each project in its own cloud tenancy.
C. Enable file auto-scaling
D. Enable departmental chargeback
Answer: A. Add project name metadata to cloud-stored files
A. Faster Internet connection from on premises to the cloud
B. Auto-scaling
C. Reduced virtual machine logging
D. Content delivery network
Answer: B. Auto-scaling
A. Tracking the amount of hours a virtual machine has been running
B. Running virtual machines on a hypervisor
C. Centralized patch management
D. Automatic backup
Answer: A. Tracking the amount of hours a virtual machine has been running
A. Community
B. Private
C. Hybrid
D. Public
Answer: Hybrid
A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. CaaS
D. IaaS
Answer: B. PaaS
A. Private
B. Public
C. Health
D. Community
Answer: D. Community
A. CaaS
B. SaaS
C. PaaS
D. IaaS
Answer: A. CaaS
A. SaaS
B. PaaS
C. IaaS
D. CaaS
Answer: C. IaaS
A. BLOB
B. Replica
C. Metadata
D. Object ID
Answer: A. A BLOB is a collection of binary data that is stored as a single entity. BLOBs are primarily used to store images, videos, and sound.
A. SaaS
B. Hybrid cloud
C. Cloud bursting
D. Elasticity
Answer: C. Cloud bursting allows you to add additional resources from an external cloud on an on-demand basis. The internal resource is the private cloud and the external resource is the public cloud.
A. The recovery of costs from consumers of cloud services
B. The process of identifying costs and assigning them to specific cost categories
C. A method of ensuring that cloud computing becomes a profit instead of a cost
D. A system for confirming that billing occurs for the cloud services being used
Answer: A. The purpose of a chargeback system is to measure the costs of IT services, hardware, or software and recover them from the business unit that used them.
A. Increased security
B. Ability to scale to meet growing usage demands
C. Ease of integrating equipment hosted in other data centers
D. Increased privacy for corporate data
Answer: B. One of the benefits of cloud computing is the ability to easily scale and add resources to meet the growth of the organization.
A. Data security management
B. Requirement of a major financial investment
C. Dependency of internal IT department
D. Complex networking
Answer: A. A hybrid cloud offers the ability to keep the organization's mission-critical data behind a firewall and outside of the public cloud.
A. Used as a service via the Internet
B. Dedicated to a single organization
C. Requires users to pay a monthly fee to access services
D. Provides incremental scalability
Answer: A private cloud is dedicated to a single organization and is contained with the corporate firewall.
A. Public cloud
B. Hybrid cloud
C. Community cloud
D. Private cloud
Answer: C. A community cloud is a cloud solution that provides services to a specific or limited number of individuals who share a common computing need.
A. Private cloud
B. Public cloud
C. VLAN
D. VPN
Answer: A. A private cloud is a cloud computing solution that is implemented behind a corporate firewall and is under the control of the internal IT department.
A. IaaS
B. SaaS
C. PaaS
D. Virtual machines
Answer: C. PaaS provides a platform to allow developers to build applications and services over the Internet. PaaS is hosted in the cloud and accessed with a web browser.
A. SaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
D. IaaS
Answer: D. In a cloud service model, IaaS providers offer computers and other hardware resources. Organizations would outsource the equipment needed to support their business.
A. IaaS
B. PaaS
C. MaaS
D. CaaS
Answer: D. Voice over IP is an example of CaaS.
A. XaaS
B. CaaS
C. MaaS
D. C-MaaS
Answer: A. XaaS is a collective term that means "Anything as a Service" (or "Everything as a Service").
A. Providing productivity software for use over the Internet
B. A multiuser program that is hosted by a third party
C. Providing hardware resources over the Internet
D. A database that is hosted in the cloud.
Answer: C. Providing hardware resources over the Internet.
A. Allow TCP port 3389 traffic into the cloud network.
B. Allow TCP port 22 traffic into the cloud network.
C. Allow TCP port 443 traffic into the cloud network.
D. Allow TCP port 389 traffic into the cloud network.
Answer: A. Allow TCP port 3389 traffic into the cloud network.
A. Service level agreement
B. Resource pooling
C. Follow the sun
D. International VPNs
Answer: C. Follow the sun
A. Storage migration
B. Virtual machine snapshot
C. Storage cloning
D. Virtual machine clone
Answer: A. Storage migration
A. Online P2V
B. Online V2P
C. Offline P2V
D. Offline V2P
Answer: C. Offline P2V
A. Operating system disk image
B. Installation script
C. Software as a Service
D. Cloud templates
Answer:
A. NIC teaming software
B. Operating system
C. Class C IP address
D. Smartcard
Answer: B. Operating system
A. Malware definition updates
B. Virtual machine antivirus extension
C. Cloud packet filtering firewall
D. Cloud web application firewall
Answer: B. Virtual machine antivirus extension
A. Symmetric
B. Asymmetric
C. Public
D. Private
Answer: C. Public
A. Differencing
B. Dynamically expanding
C. Fixed
D. Thin provisioning
Answer: B. Dynamically expanding
Answer: True
A. Page swapping
B. Transparent page sharing
C. Ballooning
D. Overcommitting
Answer: B. Transparent page sharing
A. Ballooning
B. Overcommitting
C. Compressing
D. Sharding
Answer: A. Ballooning
A. Type A
B. Type 1
C. Type 2
D. Type B
Answer: B. Type 1
A. A development server
B. A server that is running a non-mission-critical application and is not heavily utilized day to day
C. A highly utilized database server
D. A server running a mission-critical application
Answer: A and B.
A. Testing is not required.
B. Remove all unnecessary software.
C. Verify the IP address, DNS, and other network configurations. D. Run a monitoring program to verify compute resources.
Answer: C
A. The virtual machine needs more memory than the host has available.
B. The virtual machine has exceeded the allowed CPU count.
C. The virtual machine does not have the proper network configuration.
D. The virtual machine license has expired.
Answer: A
A. Offline
B. Online
C. Hybrid
D. V2P Migration Considerations
Answer: B
A. Storage migration
B. Virtual machine templates
C. Virtual machine cloning
D. P2V
Answer: C
A. Network isolation
B. P2V
C. V2V
D. Storage migration
Answer: D
A. V2P
B. P2V
C. Virtual machine templates
D. Virtual machine cloning
Answer: C
A. V2V
B. V2P
C. P2P
D. P2V
Answer: B
A. V2V
B. V2P
C. P2P
D. P2V
Answer: A
A. V2V
B. V2P
C. P2P
D. P2V
Answer: D
A. Elasticity
B. Shared resources
C. Infrastructure consolidation D. Network isolation Virtual Resource Migrations
Answer: B
A. It allows a single application to be run on a single computer.
B. It allows multiple applications to run on a single computer.
C. It requires more operating system licenses.
D. It does not allow for infrastructure consolidation and actually requires more compute resources.
Answer: B
A. Private data center
B. Public data center
C. Hybrid data center
D. Virtual data center
Answer: D
A. Subnetting
B. Resource pooling
C. Elasticity
D. VLAN
Answer: C
A. Fingerprint
B. Token
C. Reference
D. Proximity card
Answer: C
A. MAC address
B. Default gateway
C. Server name
D. Host record
Answer: A.
A. Virtual NIC
B. Virtual storage
C. Virtual HBA
D. Virtual switch Virtualized Infrastructure Service Elements
DAnswer:
A. Startup RAM
B. Static memory
C. Virtual memory
D. Dynamic memory
Answer: D
A. Virtual switch
B. Virtual HBA
C. Virtual NIC
D. Storage virtualization
Answer: D
A. The virtual machine cannot communicate with the network.
B. The guest tools are not installed.
C. The vNIC is not configured correctly.
D. The VLAN tag is incorrect.
Answer: B
A. Virtual HBA
B. Virtual NIC
C. Virtual switch
D. Virtual router
Answer: B
A. The host computer does not need to have enough compute resources to support the virtual machine workload.
B. The host computer must have enough compute resources to support the virtual machine workload.
C. The host computer must be running a support operating system.
D. The number of virtual machines running Microsoft Windows must be known. Virtual Machine
Answer: B
A. CPUs are more important than CPU cores and cache.
B. CPU cores and cache are more important than CPUs.
C. CPU speed is more important than CPU cores and cache.
D. CPU cores and cache are more important than CPU speed.
Answer: D
A. The BIOS needs a firmware update.
B. The BIOS is corrupt.
C. Hardware-assisted virtualization is enabled in the operating system, not the BIOS. D. The firmware is corrupt.
Answer: A
A. One virtual CPU for the database server and two virtual CPUs for the print server
B. Two virtual CPUs for the database server and two virtual CPUs for the print server
C. Two virtual CPUs for the database server and one virtual CPU for the print server
D. Three virtual CPUs for the print server and two virtual CPUs for the database server
Answer: C
A. Type 1
B. Enterprise hypervisor
C. Type 2
D. Open source Virtualization Host
Answer: C
A. Proprietary
B. Open source
C. Type 1
D. Type 2
Answer: B
A. Open source
B. Proprietary
C. Type 1
D. Type 2
Answer: C
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. SAN
D. RAID 6
Answer: B
A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Open source
D. Proprietary
Answer: A